Not "if Umar did" but "Umar actually did". There is a difference between the two. Lets sort this out first. I said to you before that don't jump on to this, that and the other with ifs and buts or 'lets say' or 'for instance'.
Fine, Umar (ra) actually did it, that is, he prevented the will from being dictated. In that case, you must admit that one fallible (Umar) was able to subdue the Seal of the Prophets (saw) and your first "infallible" Imam (ra).
Meaning that if this SOMETHING, this DOCUMENT, this PRESCRIPTION ain't written then it is absolutely obvious from the Prophet’s s.a.w words that the people will deviate, go astray.
Exactly my point! In the absence of this will, prescription or document, how can you guarantee your own salvation? How can you ascertain that even those present, including Imam Ali (ra), did not deviate?
Hint: this post is specifically designed to show you (though I doubt it will register in your head) that if we go by your claims, you are only undoing your own beliefs. Continue reading!
Time out. Now previous nations of Prophets and Messengers also divided, deviated, went astray.
Out of gas? Take your time-out! We are not talking about previous nations; we are talking about those present in the room. You claimed over and over again that this prescription was for them and present among them was Imam Ali (ra).
As for nations of the past deviating, the message was completed with the coming of the Holy Prophet (saw) and the final message was delivered to his Ummah so bringing up nations of the past is like a comparison of apples and oranges
So this wasn't just about one person or just about a few. It was about many who sided with Umar. And the Prophet s.a.w was offering something based on a document to ones who fell into division over it.
The Holy Prophet (saw) had three days after this incident to narrate what he intended to have dictated. He did not! Also, Imam Ali (ra) did not facilitate this request, neither on Thursday nor in the three days thereafter.
According to the theory of Muslim 720 the Jews over powered Allah by killing Prophets. Can you explain yourself or your theory
According to Islamic beliefs, a Prophet (asws) is an infallible being; infallible in delivering the message but prone to all the illnesses and evil that afflicts any man. The Shi'i concept of Imamah, on the other hand, confers absolute infallibility upon certain individuals who are in control of the atoms and universe. When individuals with such alleged superpowers are subdued, one cannot help but use the word "overpower".
Yes, an Imam's job is to guide. Not by force. But by the will of the people.
To guide someone, you must make your message known. In the case of this event, Imam Ali (ra) did not speak a word, let alone move a muscle. Furthermore, I did not know that you consider an Imam's (ra) guidance contingent upon the will of people. If I may recall, you are not a big fan of Saqeefah where it was the will of the believers for Abu Bakr (ra) to become the Caliph.
Where it suits you, it is the will of the people (to explain away your Imam's helplessness or lack of corrective course of action). Otherwise, it is all "Divinely Ordained". Pathetic!
And lets say that it is his opinion then that's his business.
I am willing to accept that this was Shaykh Mufid's opinion, contrary to mainstream Shi'i belief. The problem is not just his opinion; the bigger problem is the need to ascertain the message of the prescription in such a haste that it undoes other core Shi'i beliefs.
It wasn't just Umar but others sided with him. So it was a clear division among the people who were present at the time. Something was brewing during the final days of the Prophet s.a.w.
So was Imam Ali (ra)! He did not oppose Umar's (ra) decision. At best, he was neutral so it is funny to see you, and the rest of Shias, take a stance when your first "infallible" Imam (ra) adopted the role of a spectator.
The verse of Tat'heer and the incident of the blanket and the verse and incident of Mubahila are clear proofs of Ali's PURIFICATION and RIGHTEOUSNESS
The verse of Tat'heer was for the Wives (ra) of the Prophet (saw), the incident of blanket (in reaction to the revelation of verse of Tat'heer) is no proof of infallibility and the incident of Mubahala has no relation to infallibility.
If you still insist on this point, you have to declare the infallibility of the Mothers of Believers (ra) as well.
I have answered all your questions and addressed all your points. YOU AND THE OTHERS DON'T!
You have only given us further insight of what an idiot you are! If you want to conflate that with answering my points, suit yourself!