Is Mutah Really Halal For Shia?

[iceman]

😂😂😂😂 still diverting from what is being asked. Where are other shias when you need them. I guess most of them knows shia mut'ah is filth

What's your opinion on Mutah?  Do you believe it is filth?😊

[Hadrami]

What's your opinion on Mutah?  Do you believe it is filth?😊

try asking your shia scholar to let their daughter to do mutah which they themselves said is "highly recommend". Lets see if your shia scholars think highly of shia mutah's reputation 😂😂

[Khaled]

Here we go again. This is what you said and they are your words;

I had told myself that I was going to end this discussion and not come back to it, but to be honest, you said something so telling that I couldn't help by point it out.

Now lets examine what you said bit by bit.

Inshallah

"I believe the Messenger صلى الله عليه وسلم permitted it because it was a practice which Allah hadn't prohibited"

Ok, so you believe that the Prophet (s) permitted Mutah, not because of Allah that Allah ordered it to be permissible, but because of the Prophet (s). In other words it was the Prophet's (s) own action.

No, I believe he صلى الله عليه وسلم permitted it because of the basic Usooli principle shared by Ja'faris and non-Ja'faris, "everything in this dunya is halal unless there is evidence it is haram."  Just like alcohol was halal for a while, and then it was made haram.  Same thing here.

Excuse me, the Prophet (s) permitted it and there was no order or indication from Allah of it being permissible or prohibited. But the Prophet (s) banned it because Allah indicated and ordered it to be prohibited? Because Allah prohibited it?

Yes.

Any order or indication from Allah of anything being permitted or prohibited has to be in the Qoran and Gabriel comes to Muhammad (s) with verse/s of it being permitted or prohibited.

No it doesn't, there are plenty of things that are made haram in this deen that aren't found in the Qur'an.  Everything the Messenger صلى الله عليه وسلم prohibits is done some with indication from Allah as is again, basic Usool.

Now this is what is logical and makes sense;

The prophet (s) permitted Mutah but there has to be a reason and purpose for why apart from " because Allah didn't prohibit it'. Because if Allah didn't prohibit it then he also didn't make it permissible. This was the sole action of the Prophet (s) but why?

Now if the Prophet (s) banned it then you bring Allah as the reason for it. But why ban it? This doesn't make any sense.

You haven't showed why what I believe doesn't make sense what you believe makes sense, you just stated it.

On to the next post where you don't address any of my points...

[Khaled]

Now you mentioned this;

"And whatsoever the Messenger (Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم) gives you, take it; and whatsoever he forbids you, abstain (from it). And fear Allah; verily, Allah is Severe in punishment. [59:7]"

Now if the Prophet (s) gives you something, take it. Do you have to take it? Would this be compulsory, wajib? And if you don't take it then you're committing Haram?

That's a good question for you to ask yourself, how many times have you committed Mut'ah?

You're getting all mixed up here. Take this; if the Prophet (s) prohibited Taraweeh then this is different than,
the Prophet (s) banned Taraweeh because Allah prohibited it. See the difference. The first one wouldn't be in the Qoran because it is from the Prophet (s) alone and his own action.

But the second is also the Prophet's (s) action but it is not from the Prophet (s) but from and because of Allah and HAS to be in the QORAN.

No, it is you that doesn't know basic Usool al-Fiqh from both Ja'fari and non-Ja'fari sources, everything the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم orders and prohibits is from Allah, as is found in Sur'ah 53 verse 3-4.  So if the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم bans something, the ban is from Allah, regardless of whether it comes in the Qur'an or not.

The fact that you sidetracked about this for two straight posts while not addressing ONE point surely shows that you don't have any replies to what I am saying...

[Khaled]

Lets all calm down and relax. I see emotions are running very high here and absolutely unnecessary.☺

Inshallah, this is the reason why I have come to this thread.  You should have taken your own advice and not gotten too emotional, because you really made a mistake in this post.

I don't know how many times I need to say, repeat and answer. Anyways, lets have another go.

You wouldn't have to repeat anything if you actually addressed a single point being raised to you.

Secondly sense and logic, reality and facts have their place then Qoran and Sunah. If something doesn't make sense, isn't logical, is not according to reality and facts, doesn't fit in or add up then it can't be in and from Qoran and Sunah. This is what my belief is based on. I don't know about yours.

I don't believe it makes sense that the Imamah isn't mentioned clearly in the Qur'an, and you do.  I don't think it makes sense that verese 33:33 is only about the 12 Imams and Fatimah عليها السلام, you do.  We all believe what we think makes sense, so lets stop beating around the bush and actually address the points.

Thirdly it's got nothing to do with my sister, daughter, neice etc or yours or anybody else's. Mutah is highly recommended but for who? For what? And why is it highly recommended? Please shake off and get rid of that mindset and start thinking straight.

You have yet to answer your own rhetorical questions.  We say its unlimited in the Ja'fari madhhab, you say it is limited, yet you have yet to provide any evidence other than your own personal opinion.

The reason why Mutah is permissible, highly recommended is because it was banned by rulers after Muhammad (s)  and it is considered as something bad in fact terrible by Muslims and in the Muslim community. The Shia Scholars issue fatwas or give statements to bring back the reputation and value of Mutah which has been damaged, damned and cursed by certain Muslims and their school of thought.

ALLAH AKBAR!  This is one of the most amazing admittance I have ever seen.  You are literally addmitting that the only reason the Ja'fari clergy attributed the LIE to the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم and the Imams that Mut'ah is recommended, was because the mainstream Muslims viewed it as "something bad."  You are right, I too agree with you that Mut'ah is not recommended, and that the Ja'fari clergy invented ahadeeth and statements attributed to the Imams just to oppose the mainstream Muslims.  This is why Mut'ah is taboo in Ja'fari culture.  بارك الله فيك for your honesty.

Will continue this.

Probably not a good idea, akhi.

[Khaled]

The Prophet (s) made Mutah permissible and you don't know why? What was the reason and purpose you don't know. What, this was top secret and had to be kept discreet?  The best you can do ànd come up with is 'forget about why'.

The Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم didn't prohibit Mut'ah initially just like he didn't prohibit alcohol initially.  You are unfortunately unable to grasp this simple concept, not banning something doesn't mean he ordered it or "made it halal."  He just didn't ban it, just like alcohol.  Unless you have a reason why the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم "made alcohol halal."

Mutah is not about choice but it is a solution for those who have harsh conditions, are in difficult situations or face complicated circumstances. All you need to do is use your sense and think with logic.

You keep repeating the same thing over and over whether providing evidence.  Where are these fatwaas that restrict Mut'ah, and how does that reconcile with the ahadeeth which say that doing Mut'ah four times places you on the same station as the Messenger صلى الله عليه وسلم?

[Khaled]

Mut'ah Banned by Umar *snip*

Here are my list of questions from earlier, which you again, ignored.  Please notice question number 4.

1) What is the ruling for Mut'ah in the Ja'fari madhhab? *answered* It is mustahabb according to Ayatollah Khamini.
2) If it is at least mustahabb, why is it so taboo in Ja'fari communities?
3) Is there any fatwas or ahadeeth which mention that Mut'ah is for certain circumstances?  As you know, the fatwas we read and the ahadeeth that are quoted always seem to imply that the virtue of the act is unrestricted.
4) Do you believe that Bukhari, Muslim and other early hadeeth scholars mentioned the narrations that "Omar banned Mut'ah" because they believe Omar DID ban Mut'ah, or did they have other intentions?
5) Why did you think you were making a point when you said that "Mut'ah was allowed during the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم's time"?  This one is real confusing to me because ALL things that were haraam were allowed until the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم banned it.
6) New issue:  I was reading this thread on shiachat http://www.shiachat.com/forum/topic/235054737-can-i-have-mutah-with-different-men/ Why do you suppose everyone was discouraging her from doing Mut'ah with multiple men and some even accused her of being Salafi/Wahhabi?  How does this reconcile with the ahadeeth we read which say that the more you do Mut'ah, the more reward you will get (as is mentioned in the latest post by Muslim720)?

[iceman]

try asking your shia scholar to let their daughter to do mutah which they themselves said is "highly recommend". Lets see if your shia scholars think highly of shia mutah's reputation 😂😂

And if she's not interested then what? Does he force her?😀 No matter what Shia Scholars think they can't force anyone to engage. Can you if you believed in Mutah? Just because you believed in Mutah does that mean you would encourage your sister or daughter?

Is this what you're trying to get at? You can't even force or push even encourage your sister or daughter in to nikah never mind about Mutah. Sort yourself out.😁

[iceman]

You said;

"No, I believe he صلى الله عليه وسلم permitted it because of the basic Usooli principle shared by Ja'faris and non-Ja'faris, "everything in this dunya is halal unless there is evidence it is haram."  Just like alcohol was halal for a while, and then it was made haram.  Same thing here."

Are you telling me before Muhammad (s) there was no religion or faith from Allah? Is alcohol and pork not Haram according to the bible? Please do correct me. There were people who followed the religion of Abraham passed on through David, Moses and Jesus before Muhammad (s).

What was permissible and what prohibited what allowed and what disallowed was in place before Muhammad (s). This is where I disagree with you. Muhammad (s) didn't introduce Islam in fact he introduced the final revelation. Islam was already in place before Muhammad (s).

[Noor-us-Sunnah]

Firstly Shia Scholars differ in thought, opinion and point of view just exactly as the Suni Scholars do. Same applies to books written by Shia or Suni Scholars. One shouldn't handpick something at random just to prove their point according to their mindset be it Shia or Suni.

I quote the saying of your Imam. Are you saying your Imams differ with each other?

Secondly sense and logic, reality and facts have their place then Qoran and Sunah. If something doesn't make sense, isn't logical, is not according to reality and facts, doesn't fit in or add up then it can't be in and from Qoran and Sunah. This is what my belief is based on. I don't know about yours.

I say, it's not necessary that your mind to be considered the tool to judge a thing. There are people who followed this path and have been led astray. For example: There are people who believe that a virgin lady giving birth to a child without a man touching her is against sense, logic, reality and facts. Hence they rejected that maryam(as) could give birth to Isa(as) without a man touching her. Hence they went astray.

Also your self made methodology has been refuted by  Imam Ali.

Ali ibn Abi Talib(ra) said, “If the religion were based upon one’s opinion, one might expect the bottom of the leather sock to be wiped instead of the top, yet I have seen the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, wiping over the upper part of his leather socks.” [Source: Sunan Abī Dāwūd 162; Sahih]

As per logic the sock which we wear is to be wiped at the bottom not the top, yet we do it because Prophet(saws) did it.

Similarly, Imam Abu Hanifah said, ‘If I were to rule according to my opinion, I would have made ghusl necessary after urination as it (urine) is impure by consensus and [I would have made] wudhu [necessary] from semen as its impurity is disputed’”
[Mirqātul Mafātīḥ, volume 2, page 480]

Logically speaking urine is impure by consensus and semen being impure is disputed. Yet, we are commanded to take bath after semen discharge but not urine, even though urine is more impure.

Similarly another example is about salah(prayer) and Fast(sawm). We know that the importance of prayer is higher than Fasting, yet for the menstruating woman Allah has Obligated the woman to make up for her Fasts rather than her Prayers’.

I can give you more of such examples to show your utter ignorance and deviance.

Thirdly it's got nothing to do with my sister, daughter, neice etc or yours or anybody else's. Mutah is highly recommended but for who? For what? And why is it highly recommended? Please shake off and get rid of that mindset and start thinking straight.

The question was not about what is recommedable. But rather the question was about which out of the two was better than the other. And you failed to even give a scenario wherein Mutah would be better than permanent marriage.

The reason why Mutah is permissible, highly recommended is because it was banned by rulers after Muhammad (s)  and it is considered as something bad in fact terrible by Muslims and in the Muslim community. The Shia Scholars issue fatwas or give statements to bring back the reputation and value of Mutah which has been damaged, damned and cursed by certain Muslims and their school of thought.

Will continue this.

That's incorrect and this misconception has been shattered, if you want to live with your misconceptions then it's up to you. But the fact is that, We have proven Mutah to be prohibited from Quran and the authentic narrations of Prophet Muhammad(saws). So it's just a lie by Shia scholars who say Mutah was banned by Rulers.

[Noor-us-Sunnah]

Now if Mutah was considered taboo in the Shia community then people wouldn't practice it all. And they would advise others not to as well giving their reasons. What ever fatwa or statement a Shia Scholar has given one needs to ask that particular scholar for a detailed explanation rather than taking it at face value and giving it your own meaning and explanation based on your own understanding and mindset.

Please don't put words in my mouth just to make things easy for you. Where did I say that Mutah is considered a taboo in Shia community?

I just said that Permanent marriage is considered better in comparision to Mutah in Shia community. Now how does this mean Mutah is considered a taboo in Shia community ? I know very well that Shias don't see Mutah as bad, however Shia community considers Permanent marriage to be better than Mutah(temporary marriage).

If I say Apple is better than Mango, how could you conclude that I mean Mango is bad ? It just displays your poor understanding skill.

I have said this before and I will say it again that when it comes to my sister or daughter, it is not for me to choose for them. In fact it is down to them. And if they choose not to engage in Mutah then that is their choice. Just because they choose not to doesn't mean Mutah is bad or it is taboo with in Shia community.

Calm down. I did not say Mutah is considered bad by Shias. It's was your misunderstanding.

[Noor-us-Sunnah]

The Prophet (s) made Mutah permissible and you don't know why? What was the reason and purpose you don't know.

who said we don't know? We know it. And we know that it's situation was similar to the case of meat of swine, blood, etc. which means they are haram in general sense but was made permissible during necessity. However, later Mutah was made haram till qiyamah, hence one can't do it out of necessity also.

Again the Prophet (s) prohibited Mutah and you can't come up with a single answer to why? What was the reason and purpose you don't have the faintest, is this what you're telling me? Is this what your faith and belief is based on?

The similitude of Mutah is Alcohol. Allah said in Quran: {They ask you about wine and gambling. Say, "In them is great sin and [yet, some] benefit for people. But their sin is greater than their benefit."...2:219}

Just like alcohol, Mutah may have some advantages but the disadvantages of Mutah outweighs its advantages. Hence it was made haram, even though allowed for certain time period. 

Brother Khaled mentioned that the Prophet (s) banned Mutah because Allah prohibited it, he hasn't come up with the Quranic text of where and when Allah prohibited it.

Alhamdulillah! I have proven from Quran, using both Sunni and Shia hadeeth that Mutah has been abrogated. Refer post 110. And I don't find any academic refutation to it from your side.

So even after proving it from Quran, if you still don't accept it. Then you must pray to Allah to unseal your heart and to guide you.

[Hadrami]

And if she's not interested then what? Does he force her?😀 No matter what Shia Scholars think they can't force anyone to engage. Can you if you believed in Mutah? Just because you believed in Mutah does that mean you would encourage your sister or daughter?

Is this what you're trying to get at? You can't even force or push even encourage your sister or daughter in to nikah never mind about Mutah. Sort yourself out.😁

i didnt tell anyone to force. Just go to your scholars and ASK. Just ask their daughters for mutah. Thats all you need to do and lets see how those pimps in turban react to your question 😂😂

[iceman]

i didnt tell anyone to force. Just go to your scholars and ASK. Just ask their daughters for mutah. Thats all you need to do and lets see how those pimps in turban react to your question 😂😂

Well if this is the case then I don't deal with personal stuff based on hatred or grudge. I don't do or deal with such stuff where you try to undermine people because you hold a grudge or have hatred towards them. If you can't contribute positively then I suggest you zip it.

[iceman]

Here are my list of questions from earlier, which you again, ignored.  Please notice question number 4.

1) What is the ruling for Mut'ah in the Ja'fari madhhab? *answered* It is mustahabb according to Ayatollah Khamini.
2) If it is at least mustahabb, why is it so taboo in Ja'fari communities?
3) Is there any fatwas or ahadeeth which mention that Mut'ah is for certain circumstances?  As you know, the fatwas we read and the ahadeeth that are quoted always seem to imply that the virtue of the act is unrestricted.
4) Do you believe that Bukhari, Muslim and other early hadeeth scholars mentioned the narrations that "Omar banned Mut'ah" because they believe Omar DID ban Mut'ah, or did they have other intentions?
5) Why did you think you were making a point when you said that "Mut'ah was allowed during the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم's time"?  This one is real confusing to me because ALL things that were haraam were allowed until the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم banned it.
6) New issue:  I was reading this thread on shiachat http://www.shiachat.com/forum/topic/235054737-can-i-have-mutah-with-different-men/ Why do you suppose everyone was discouraging her from doing Mut'ah with multiple men and some even accused her of being Salafi/Wahhabi?  How does this reconcile with the ahadeeth we read which say that the more you do Mut'ah, the more reward you will get (as is mentioned in the latest post by Muslim720)?

The first question has been answered. Second question has also been answered but due to the ignorance of some individuals I will answer again. Mutah is not considered taboo in the Ja'fari community. I don't know where and how you got or came up with this.

You are not from this community so why make and exaggerate claims when you are not from a particular community. I don't see shias coming up here and considering and claiming about Mutah.

If members of that community came forward and claimed then we have some weight and an issue. Otherwise people are just jumping up and down trying to save a lost argument.

Number 3 has also been answered but will answer again. The Prophet (s) made Mut'ah permissible, why and for what reason and purpose? The answer given was 'exceptional circumstances'. Can anyone give me a clear and cut hadith written in black and white that the Prophet (s) made Mut'ah permissible only for exceptional circumstances? Or if someone can answer why the Prophet (s) made Mut'ah permissible?

If you ask you must also answer. When you demand you must also provide. Number 4, what do you think and make of those narrations about Omar banning Mut'ah, this is what you suppose to address rather than constantly questioning unnecessarily just to avoid answering and addressing.

[iceman]

You said;

"Why did you think you were making a point when you said that "Mut'ah was allowed during the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم's time"?  This one is real confusing to me because ALL things that were haraam were allowed until the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم banned it."

I didn't make the point. It was made on this thread by someone that the Prophet (s) made Mut'ah permissible due to exceptional circumstances.

I do not believe that all those things that were Haram were halal before. This is something I disagree with.

[iceman]

You said;

"Why do you suppose everyone was discouraging her from doing Mut'ah with multiple men and some even accused her of being Salafi/Wahhabi?  How does this reconcile with the ahadeeth we read which say that the more you do Mut'ah, the more reward you will get (as is mentioned in the latest post by Muslim720)?"

Ok, we have two parts here; any principle, rule and regulation, any concession or benefit given, such as mutah, if misused or abused would consider to be wrong. Now before we speak about this particular woman you mention lets get something straight.

About Mut'ah and what Shia Scholars say about it, which you mention and quote, is this the fatwa or statement of one or two scholars or does the vast majority of the Shia scholars hold the same view? If the vast majority say and agree then we have something to discuss and this can be implemented on the Shia community. But if it's just one or two odd scholars then that is their point of view which they need to elaborate. This can't be implemented and labelled on the entire Shia community.

Now the woman you speak about firstly how true this story is or not one needs to look into. Secondly this is exactly my point that if we go by the fact that in the Shia community Mutah is something that is practiced commonly then what's all the fuss about.

This woman who is told off not because mutah is seen as taboo but because it isn't a common practice and it is down to exceptional circumstances otherwise why is she told off? Going by your statements and claims she shouldn't be told off but she is. Why, exactly my point that it's based on exceptional circumstances and mutah is there and available for need and if needed. Not for choice or do as you please.

None of you belong to the Shia community so why are you so ignorant on this? What do you know about the Shia community? Making claims and then being ignorant. You claimed that the Prophet (s) banned mutah because Allah prohibited it. This definitely needs to be proven from the Qoran. But if the Prophet (s) makes a decision based on his own understanding and reasoning then we need to accept this. But this is not from Allah but from the Prophet (s) and doesn't need to be proven from the Qoran because it's not Allah's decision but the Prophets.

[iceman]

I quote the saying of your Imam. Are you saying your Imams differ with each other?
 I say, it's not necessary that your mind to be considered the tool to judge a thing. There are people who followed this path and have been led astray. For example: There are people who believe that a virgin lady giving birth to a child without a man touching her is against sense, logic, reality and facts. Hence they rejected that maryam(as) could give birth to Isa(as) without a man touching her. Hence they went astray.

Also your self made methodology has been refuted by  Imam Ali.

Ali ibn Abi Talib(ra) said, “If the religion were based upon one’s opinion, one might expect the bottom of the leather sock to be wiped instead of the top, yet I have seen the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, wiping over the upper part of his leather socks.” [Source: Sunan Abī Dāwūd 162; Sahih]

As per logic the sock which we wear is to be wiped at the bottom not the top, yet we do it because Prophet(saws) did it.

Similarly, Imam Abu Hanifah said, ‘If I were to rule according to my opinion, I would have made ghusl necessary after urination as it (urine) is impure by consensus and [I would have made] wudhu [necessary] from semen as its impurity is disputed’”
[Mirqātul Mafātīḥ, volume 2, page 480]

Logically speaking urine is impure by consensus and semen being impure is disputed. Yet, we are commanded to take bath after semen discharge but not urine, even though urine is more impure.

Similarly another example is about salah(prayer) and Fast(sawm). We know that the importance of prayer is higher than Fasting, yet for the menstruating woman Allah has Obligated the woman to make up for her Fasts rather than her Prayers’.

I can give you more of such examples to show your utter ignorance and deviance.


The question was not about what is recommedable. But rather the question was about which out of the two was better than the other. And you failed to even give a scenario wherein Mutah would be better than permanent marriage.

That's incorrect and this misconception has been shattered, if you want to live with your misconceptions then it's up to you. But the fact is that, We have proven Mutah to be prohibited from Quran and the authentic narrations of Prophet Muhammad(saws). So it's just a lie by Shia scholars who say Mutah was banned by Rulers.

As far as my Imams are concerned or even the Prophet (s) as a matter of fact, anything attributed to them needs to be looked at and carefully examined. I do not accept anything and everything at face value. Are we clear on this? A lot of things have been attributed to them that this is what they said and this is from them but in fact it's got nothing to do with them. They are either false to begin with or are exaggerated or fabricated full stop.

My mind is not the tool to judge. Neither is my thought or opinion that important. I'm talking about reality and facts, don't ignore them and don't forget to use sense and logic.

A woman becoming pregnant and giving birth without touching a man isn't against reality and facts or against sense and logic. It all depends on the time and generation. These days this isn't strange or considered impossible. Test tube babies is your answer. But going back to Mother Mary and the birth of Jesus, those where different times.

You quoted the saying of Ali, again I am not talking about thought and opinion but about reality and facts, sense and logic, nature or statistics.

You said;

"The question was not about what is recommedable. But rather the question was about which out of the two was better than the other. And you failed to even give a scenario wherein Mutah would be better than permanent marriage."

You've said it yourself. Why do I need to answer something which I've answered in great detail. Which is better nikah or mutah? I say why even ask when facts and statistics are there? In the Shia community which is commonly practiced and which isn't? It's absolutely obvious, NIKAH. Why even ask which is known based on facts and statistics. This is my point that Nikah is commonly practiced and mutah isn't. Why? Not because Mut'ah is taboo but because it's there for exceptional circumstances.

[Khaled]

The first question has been answered.

By a fatwa which you didn't copy and paste fully, which stated "Therefore, if it leads to conflict, accusation or vile consequences matters that are not acceptable by the Divine Legislator, it is rendered impermissible for the mukallaf to be indulged in such a marriage."  i.e., if it taboo in the community, then it is rendered impermissible.

that "Second question has also been answered but due to the ignorance of some individuals I will answer again. Mutah is not considered taboo in the Ja'fari community. I don't know where and how you got or came up with this.

Here are some links from the biggest English speaking Shi'i (Ja'fari) website online:
http://www.shiachat.com/forum/topic/234993058-is-mutah-common-in-your-area/
http://www.shiachat.com/forum/topic/235024238-is-mutah-frowned-upon-in-your-culture/

I can keep linking to threads, but just those two are more than enough.  It is certainly a taboo in Ja'fari culture.  Only exceptions seem to be "Lebanese youth" according to those threads.

You are not from this community so why make and exaggerate claims when you are not from a particular community. I don't see shias coming up here and considering and claiming about Mutah.

A) you don't have to be part of a community to know its taboos, B) There are Shi'is here, on this very thread, who share the same perspective, c) Shia aren't "coming up here and considering and claiming about Mutah" (?) because they already have Shiachat.  They come here to try to defend Mutah (unsuccessfully).

If members of that community came forward and claimed then we have some weight and an issue. Otherwise people are just jumping up and down trying to save a lost argument.

Except they are on every single thread ever created on Shiachat about Mut'ah (and sometimes on threads that aren't about it).

Number 3 has also been answered but will answer again.

Number 3 was asking you to provide a fatwa or hadeeth statement from the Prophet or Imams stating it was for exceptional circumstances.  It is YOUR belief that it is for exceptional circumstances.

Mutah is a virtuous act but for who? And why? Those with exceptional circumstances depending on their situation and condition where one fears or eventually and secretly indulges in Haram/sinful acts it is highly recommended and a virtuous act with rewards from refraining from Haram and sinful acts and deeds.

Once again Mutah is there for those who feel the urge and need. Those with extreme circumstances and in difficult conditions. Those who most definitely know that they will end up doing something sinful/Haram.

Now, lets see if you actually answer, or if you just repeat the same stuff you've been saying over and over that no one agrees with you on.

The Prophet (s) made Mut'ah permissible, why and for what reason and purpose? The answer given was 'exceptional circumstances'. Can anyone give me a clear and cut hadith written in black and white that the Prophet (s) made Mut'ah permissible only for exceptional circumstances? Or if someone can answer why the Prophet (s) made Mut'ah permissible?

Like I anticipated, no answer.

If you ask you must also answer. When you demand you must also provide. Number 4, what do you think and make of those narrations about Omar banning Mut'ah, this is what you suppose to address rather than constantly questioning unnecessarily just to avoid answering and addressing.

It is well known amongst non-Ja'faris (including Zaidis and Ismailis) that Mut'ah was banned by mutawatir ahadeeth from the Messenger صلى الله عليه وسلم, one of those reports coming by way of Imam Ali رضي الله عنه.  The reports by certain companions stating otherwise are them just not knowing that Mut'ah was prohibited.  I'd trust Omar, Ali رضي الله عنهما and the Messenger صلى الله عليه وسلم over the companions that thought otherwise.  Now, can you answer my question, do you think Bukhari, Muslim and ALL THE OTHER hadeeth scholars from the early period reported these ahadeeth because they thought Omar banned Mut'ah?  Remember, it is you that says "if you ask you must also answer."  Even though you have yet to answer one question brought to you other than "Is Mut'ah Mustahabb?"  Which you answered with an incomplete fatwa.

[Khaled]

Are you telling me before Muhammad (s) there was no religion or faith from Allah? Is alcohol and pork not Haram according to the bible? Please do correct me. There were people who followed the religion of Abraham passed on through David, Moses and Jesus before Muhammad (s).

Of course there was faith before, just not the laws of Islam.  Allah says in the Qur'an, (05:48) "To each of you we have given a sharee'ah and a minhaj."  It is well known that all the Prophets عليهم السلام preached the same message, but not the same law.  I would imagine you're the first Muslim, Ja'fari or non-Ja'fari, who has made the claim that all religions have the same system of law.  Nonetheless, from this, I gather that you believe Mut'ah is found in the Bible?

What was permissible and what prohibited what allowed and what disallowed was in place before Muhammad (s). This is where I disagree with you. Muhammad (s) didn't introduce Islam in fact he introduced the final revelation. Islam was already in place before Muhammad (s).

I've said this before, and I'll say it again, the relaxed attitude towards referring to the Messenger صلى الله عليه وسلم as merely Muhammad by the Ja'faris will always puzzle.  But خير إن شاء الله.

I don't think what you're saying here is mainstream Ja'fari views, so I'll just refrain from going any further here.  Noone, Ja'fari or non-Ja'fari, believes that each religion follows the same Sharee'ah.  Nor is the concept of Mut'ah found outside of pre-Islamic Arabia or among Ja'faris.