TwelverShia.net Forum
Sunni Shia Discussion Forum => Sahabah-AhlulBayt => Topic started by: confusedshia on September 14, 2017, 01:56:16 AM
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Salam,
According to the following article on the calamity of Thursday, there is no report of Umar saying the words, "the Prophet is delirious": http://www.twelvershia.net/2017/01/21/calamity-thursday-intentions-companions/
However, the following narration in Bukhari contains the exact words "fa qala Umar" (فَقَالَ عُمَرُ):
https://sunnah.com/bukhari/75/30
So can it now be said that Umar did indeed say this?
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Wa alaykum alsalam wa rahmatullah,
There is no conflict.
The sunnah.com site says:
فَقَالَ عُمَرُ إِنَّ النَّبِيَّ صلى الله عليه وسلم قَدْ غَلَبَ عَلَيْهِ الْوَجَعُ
This does not say delirious. There are no hadiths in which Omar says that he was delirious.
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Wa alaykum alsalam wa rahmatullah,
There is no conflict.
The sunnah.com site says:
فَقَالَ عُمَرُ إِنَّ النَّبِيَّ صلى الله عليه وسلم قَدْ غَلَبَ عَلَيْهِ الْوَجَعُ
This does not say delirious. There are no hadiths in which Omar says that he was delirious.
Thank you for the clarification. What is the Arabic word used in the other reports which say delirious?
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Wa alaykum alsalam wa rahmatullah,
There is no conflict.
The sunnah.com site says:
فَقَالَ عُمَرُ إِنَّ النَّبِيَّ صلى الله عليه وسلم قَدْ غَلَبَ عَلَيْهِ الْوَجَعُ
This does not say delirious. There are no hadiths in which Omar says that he was delirious.
Thank you for the clarification. What is the Arabic word used in the other reports which say delirious?
They either say:
هجر = He is delirious
or
أهجر = Is he delirious?
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Wa alaykum alsalam wa rahmatullah,
There is no conflict.
The sunnah.com site says:
فَقَالَ عُمَرُ إِنَّ النَّبِيَّ صلى الله عليه وسلم قَدْ غَلَبَ عَلَيْهِ الْوَجَعُ
This does not say delirious. There are no hadiths in which Omar says that he was delirious.
Thank you for the clarification. What is the Arabic word used in the other reports which say delirious?
They either say:
هجر = He is delirious
or
أهجر = Is he delirious?
So the narrations which say "umar said" only say that the Prophet was "seriously ill"?
The narrations which say "they said" state the Prophet was "delirious" or ask if he was?
Is that right?
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Yes.
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Shia intentionally mix these two completely different matters that happened in the event.
A- A group of those in the house said: "Has he become delirious? Ask him and find out."
B- `Umar said: "The Prophet (saw) is overcome by pain, God's Book is sufficient for us."
The two things mentioned above have nothing to do with eachother, Shia insist on claiming that `Umar said he's delirious even though we know exactly what `Umar said.
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this thing is only a scandal for insane shia. I would be very angry too and would kick people out if they were loud near my sick parent's room. It shows umar ra really care about Prophet sallallahu alayhi wasallam wellbeing & was angry at what other were doing. Something which shows umar's love & loyalty became a story of umar's hatred & treachery for braindead shia.